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The organizational process assets are policies, procedures, and guidelines that are used to influence the project's success. Incorrect answer. Please choose another answer. Since the levels of both cost and risk vary throughout the project life...
As the project continues through its life cycle, resources are expended causing an increase in costs. At the same time, as the project progresses toward completion, the uncertainty and risk is decreased. In a phased project, phase end meetings are...
Create a probability and impact matrix b. Include manufacturing personnel as project stakeholders c. Meet with manufacturing employees and tell them their jobs are safe d. Meet with the sponsor to get their advice While some stakeholders benefit from a project, others may be negatively impacted by the outcome. As a project manager, you must identify both groups of stakeholders. Failure to recognize the stakeholders negatively affected may jeopardize the project objectives. Since meeting with the sponsor would not necessarily resolve the issue because you have not heard the concerns of the negative stakeholders yet, your initial step would be to include the manufacturing personnel as project stakeholders. Preparing a probability and impact matrix might be a logical next step, but without analysis of the impact and its probability, it would not be prudent to assure the employees their jobs were not in jeopardy. Stakeholder management is a critical aspect of managing a project.
In order to manage stakeholder expectations, the project manager must come up with a strategy. Issue log c. Stakeholder register d. Stakeholder management plan Stakeholder analysis defines the stakeholder management strategy and includes specific information such as the identities of those stakeholders who can significantly impact the project and their level of participation. The issue log evolves while managing the stakeholder expectations and may result in change orders to incorporate corrective or preventive actions. The stakeholder management plan identifies the management strategies required to effectively engage stakeholders.
Project Planning 6. In situations involving a large number of ideas on requirements provided by various stakeholders, a project manager must sort, review and analyze those ideas. Which of the following tools can be utilized to accomplish this? Affinity diagram c. Pareto chart d. Brainstorming Affinity diagrams can be used to sort and group idea for additional review and analysis.
Mind mapping allows ideas to be grouped based on their similarities and differences. Brainstorming is a requirement gathering technique but used primarily in the idea generation stage rather than the review and analysis aspect. Which of the following are inputs to the Develop Project Management Plan process? Expert Judgment d. Both a and b The project charter is an input to the Develop Project Management Plan process as are the enterprise environmental factors. While expert judgment is utilized during this process, it is considered a tool and technique rather than an input. The project is progressing well from a budgetary point of view, since the CPI value is greater than one. What is the Estimate at Completion EAC if the future work of the project is performed at the budgeted rate? There are two methods to calculate the EAC. It can be calculated at the budgeted rate, or it can be figured using the present CPI. The EAC at the budgeted rate is based on performance to date and represented by the actual accrued costs.
What is the current CPI on this project? The Budget at completion information is irrelevant in this question. On a project schedule network diagram, leads and lags are used to define the relationships between activities. These leads and lags indicate either acceleration or delay, respectively, of the successor activity. Activities with a Finish-to-finish relationship and 3 days of lag time b. The activity has 3 days of final float c. Activity with a finish-to-finish relationship and 3 days of lead time d.
None of the above When sequencing activities, there are four types of relationships: finish-to-finish, start-to-finish, finish-to-start, and start-to-start. Finish-to-finish are indicated as "FF. The correct answer is a finish-to-finish relationship with 3 days of lag time. Execution Which of the following are inputs to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process? Issue log and performance reports b. Change log and Enterprise environmental factors c. Change log and Risk register d. Stakeholder management plan and Change log The inputs to the manage stakeholder engagement process include the stakeholder management plan, communications management plan, change log and organizational process assets. Hence, the stakeholder management plan and the change log are correct answers. Project communication involves dissemination of information by various methods. Communication may be formal, informal, verbal, and nonverbal.
Which of the following would define direct communication with peers? Formal communication c. External communication d. Vertical communication Formal communication involves reports, memos, and briefings. Any communication that goes outside the project team or the stakeholders is known as external communication. Conversely, all communication with the project team and stakeholders is within the organization. It is not external and it typically considered horizontal in nature. Hence, horizontal communication is the correct response. Earned value analysis can be used for measuring the project performance. Project managers use this analysis to plan for risks based on the actual cost, schedule and progress of the work. During the executing phase, if a project has negative values for the cost variance and the schedule variance, which of the following would most accurately represent the project's status?
The project is ahead of schedule and under budget b. The project is behind schedule and under budget c. The project is over budget and behind schedule d. The project is ahead of schedule and over budget Cost variance equals earned value minus actual costs EV-AC. If the value is negative, it indicates the project is over budget. Schedule variance equals earned value minus planned value EV-PV. If the value is negative, it indicates the project is behind schedule. In this scenario, based on the negative values calculated by the earned value analysis, this project is over budget and behind schedule.
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Do bridges operate at physical layer? The correct answer to this question is false. Instead of a physical layer, bridges operate at a data link layer. A bridge is a computer network device. Its job is to connect with other bridges that are using the same protocol. UNIX is not and has neveer been an open source operating system. That why the Linux operating system was introduced. I have found lot of questions Which is used to provide a centralized authentication method from remote locations?
Ok, so the question asks for a centralized Authentication method. This would be the Radius. Multiple devices work at different layers of the OSI model. Each has its own function and a specific niche that cannot be taken up by the other device. For instance, the options A and b are needs as data link layer devices. They are AP and switch and.
Module 1 — Introduction This module introduces the students to the challenges of protecting electronic information and using the LabSim simulator. Module 2 — Access Control and Identity Management In this module students will learn concepts about controlling access to system resources. They will learn the access control models, terminology, best practices, tools, and remote and network considerations to controlling access. Module 3 — Cryptography This module teaches the students about cryptographic attacks and the tools to ensure data integrity. They will learn about hashing, symmetric and asymmetric encryption, and certificates. Methods of implementing cryptography are also presented.
Module 4 — Policies, Procedures, and Awareness This module discusses security policies, procedures and security awareness. Students will learn security classification levels, documents, business continuity plans, risk management considerations, incident response, trusted computing, software development concerns, and management of employees. Module 5 — Physical Security This module examines the fundamentals of physically securing access to facilities and computer systems, protecting a computer system with proper environmental conditions and fire-suppression systems, and securing mobile devices and telephony transmissions. Module 6 — Perimeter Defenses In this module students will learn concepts about perimeter defenses to increase network security. Module 7 — Network Defenses This module discusses network device vulnerabilities and defenses, providing security for a router and switch, and implementing intrusion monitoring and prevention.
Module 8 — Host Defenses In this module students will learn about the types of malware and how to protect against them, protecting against password attacks, recommendations for hardening a Windows system, configuring GPOs to enforce security, managing file system security, and procedures to increase network security of a Linux system. Module 9 — Application Defenses This module discusses basic concepts of securing web applications from attacks, fortifying the internet browser, securing e-mail from e-mail attacks, concerns about networking software, and security considerations when using a virtual machine.
Module 10 — Data Defenses This module discusses the elements of securing data, such as, implementing redundancy through RAID, proper management of backups and restores, file encryption, implementing secure protocols, and cloud computing. Module 11 — Assessments and Audits This module examines tools that can be used to test and monitor the vulnerability of systems and logs that provide a system manager to track and audit a variety of events on a system. Practice Exams In Practice Exams students will have the opportunity to test themselves and verify that they understand the concepts and are ready to take the certification exam.
N retired Aug 31, Cert timeframe: Valid for three years from date exam is passed. Certified for life if certified on or before Dec 31, The new exam has been updated and reorganized to reflect the current technologies with expanded coverage of several domains by adding: Critical security concepts to helping networking professionals work with security practitioners Key cloud computing best practices and typical service models Coverage of newer hardware and virtualization techniques Concepts to give individuals the combination of skills to keep the network resilient What about a JOB? Associated jobs may include network administrator, technician, installer, help desk technician and IT cable installer. Who else?
Available online. CompTIA certification and training expert Mike Meyers authored the book using an easy-to-read style that makes studying for the test a breeze. Meyers takes complex subjects and presents them in a conversational, informal style, so even novice computer geeks can comprehend subjects such as network hardware, installation, and troubleshooting. Meyers leads the creative experts at Total Seminars, who design and produce expert training materials for various IT industry certifications.
For the past two decades, Total Seminars has proven themselves as leaders within the industry by successfully helping people get certified. Once you read this comprehensive guide from Total Seminars, you will feel confident about taking the test and passing it with flying colors. It is an international, vendor-neutral certification that proves a technician has the competency to manage, maintain, troubleshoot, install, and configure basic network infrastructure. As a certified professional, you can prove you have knowledge of networking features and functions such as wiring standards and the use of testing tools. By having in-demand knowledge, skill sets, and the right qualifications, you can enable yourself to land a great job at a new company, gain a key promotion, and continue to strengthen your IT career path.
No one likes failing a test. While this might seem like an easy option for getting up-to-date information about the test, be careful. You could be memorizing wrong answers or getting tricked entirely. Certification tests do more than get you certified. They teach essential information that you will be expected to know in the workplace. Worst of all, posting brain dumps can get you in legal trouble because you must sign a non-disclosure agreement to take CompTIA exams. Each test comes with an explanation of the test objectives. Knowing where you are in the test and how much you have left is vital for managing your time. Alternatively, you might be rushing because of nerves and need a reminder to take your time. It might sound daunting but building an actual computer is a great way to prepare. It will be essential in understanding not just the theory but how to apply it to your work.
There are a few ways this helps. Knowing your way around a computer or network firsthand gives meaning to the information you are studying. The next best option can be online classes where you can practice in a virtual lab. Try out the ABC method for improving your scores before moving on to the actual test. Until you can consistently do better on practice tests than you want to do in the real thing. So, if a question seems too hard, just move on.
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Preparing for these questions with online labs can give you the confidence and skills you need to tackle them. The community is full of people who have either passed their certifications or deep in the process. If you need extra help with a tricky section, ask! While last-minute cramming can be significant, you need to leave yourself enough time to get a full eight hours of sleep.
Eat well and try to manage your stress. If you are traveling to a new location, make sure you leave yourself plenty of time in case you get lost. Finally, build up your confidence to prepare for the test. Give yourself a pep talk. You can do it! That includes helping you optimize your resume and build your professional network. As the skills gap in I. Taking CompTIA certification classes can be a great way to get started.
Which tool should you use? Step 2- Deploy a Fibre Channel switch. Step 3- Connect each server to the Fibre Channel switch using the appropriate fiber optic cabling for the equipment you are using. Step 4- Deploy a shared storage device, such as an external RAID device containing multiple hard disk drives. Requires special hardware and knowledge to implement.
You manage a network with three dedicated storage devices, as shown in the diagram. Users on the network see only a single file server. Which network-based storage technology is being used? NAS with Clustering. One or more NICs. Which of the following protocols are used with VoIP? PoE Match each UC component on the left with its corresponding definition on the right. Recently, employees have been complaining about phone calls with unusual sound effects. Which type of problem is occurring on the VoIP system? Jitter At what percent is packet loss noticeable in voice traffic? MGCP Your company recently installed a unified communication system. Employees are now able to inform each other of their availability. Which of the following systems should you recommend to them? Unified communication Which of the following protocols is used during the call control process of multimedia communications? Session Initiation Protocol In virtualization, what is the role of a hypervisor? A hypervisor allows virtual machines to interact with the hardware without going through the host operating system.
What type of virtualization completely simulates a real physical host? Full Virtualization Which component is most likely to allow physical and virtual machines to communicate with each other? Virtual switch Which of the following are advantages of virtualization? These services should be deployed using virtualization. Which type of virtualization should you implement? Virtual servers. Give the port configuration for the virtual switch and the physical switch in the table below, click on on all of the virtual and physical machines Virtual OS 1 can communicate with.
You use a hypervisor with multiple virtual machines installed to test your applications on various operating system versions and editions. However, you are concerned that the latest application you are working on could adversely impact other network hosts if errors exist in the code. To prevent this, you decide to isolate the virtual machines from the production network. However, they still need to be able to communicate directly with each other.
What should you do? Create a new virtual switch configured for host-only internal networking. Connect the virtual network interfaces in the virtual machines to the virtual switch. Match the virtualization feature on the right with the appropriate description on the left. Flexibility — Moving virtual machines between hypervisor hosts Testing — Verifying that security controls are working as designed Server consolidation — Performing a physical-to-virtual migration P2V Sandboxing — Isolating a virtual machine from the physical network You are responsible for maintaining Windows workstation operating systems in your organization. Recently, an update from Microsoft was automatically installed on your workstations that caused an in-house application to stop working. To keep this from happening again, you decide to test all updates on a virtual machine before allowing them to be installed on production workstations.
Currently, none of your testing virtual machines have a network connection. However, they need to be able to connect to the update servers at Microsoft to download and install updates. Create a new virtual switch configured for bridged external networking Connect the virtual network interfaces in the virtual machine to the virtual switch What key advantage does a virtual router have over a physical router?
Multiple networks can be connected to a single interface. You want to be able to monitor and filter VM-to-VM traffic within a virtual network. Implement a virtual firewall within the hypervisor. Which of the following statements about virtual NICs are true? Virtual NICs need the appropriate driver installed to function. Multiple virtual NICs can be added to a virtual machine. Which of the following cloud computing solutions will deliver software applications to a client either over the Internet or on a local area network? PaaS delivers everything a developer needs to build an application onto the cloud infrastructure Which of the following is NOT true regarding cloud computing? Cloud computing requires end-user knowledge of the physical location and configuration of the system that delivers the services. Public cloud Provides cloud services to just about anyone Private cloud Provides cloud services to a single organization Community cloud Allows cloud services to be shared by several organizations Hybrid Cloud Integrates one cloud service with other cloud services You were hired by a small start-up company.
You ave been asked to find a business service that would accommodate the curren size of the company but would also be able to scale as the company grows. The service needs to provide adequate storage, as well as additional computing power. Which cloud serve model should you use? IaaS You manage the information systems for a large co-location data center. Networked environmental controls are used to manage the temperature within the data center. These controls use embedded smart technology allowing them to be managed using a mobile device app over an Internet connection. You are concerned about the security of these devices. What can you do to increase their security posture? Install the latest firmware updates from the device manufacturer You manage the information systems for a large manufacturing firm. The SCADA devices use embedded smart technology, allowing them to be managed using a mobile device app over an Internet connection.
Why do attackers prefer static environment devices to conduct distributed network attacks? Match the definition on the left with the SCADA technology term on the right Remote Terminal Unit- Connects equipment to the network via a wireless signal and converts digital data from the network into signals that the equipment can process. DCS- A network of components that work together in order to remotely manage industrial equipment. Programmable logic Controller- Connects equipment to the network via a physical medium and converts digital data into signals that the equipment can process Which of the following is an example of smart technology embedded within networked devices associated with automated factory equipment?
Remote terminal units RTUs , and programmable Logic Controllers PLCs What is the risk associated with smart technology used in network devices such as smart refrigerators, environmental controls, or industrial equipment? They are vulnerable to exploits due to weaker security.
Pros: Another abbreviated review for both exams that still manages to touch all topics. Cons: Not as comprehensive as the more expensive study systems above. Our Rating: 4. Through a narrowly tailored focus, this book helps you drill down on topics where you need the most help in the days leading up to the test. Features include: The companion website contains the powerful Pearson Test Prep practice test software, complete with hundreds of exam-realistic questions. Coverage and practice questions for every exam topic, including substantial new coverage of security, cloud networking, IPv6, and wireless technologies. Well organized test-preparation routine through the use of proven series elements and techniques. That said, the narrow focus can be a great help in the final days, since it can be easier to review the more condensed material.
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